Ap unit 3 Test Multiple Choice



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AP Unit 3 Test
Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. David Mayhew, in Divided We Govern, suggests that:

a.

unified versus divided control of government makes little difference in the outcome of

policymaking.



b.

a divided government writes as many laws as a unified one, but the laws are not as good.

c.

a unified government is more able to attach an ideological coherence to its programs.

d.

divided government is the preference of irrational voters.

e.

a unified government is the best.

2. Sir Ernest Barker’s Government by Discussion model:



a.

attacks factions on principle.

b.

attacks factions as evil.

c.

requires a plurality of parties.

d.

stresses the importance of coalition government.

e.

puts the Cabinet ahead of Parliament.

3. The APSA’s 1950 report concludes that the party government model envisions:



a.

two weak parties.

b.

many weak parties.

c.

many strong parties.

d.

no parties.

e.

two strong parties.

4. In Federalist 10, James Madison suggests that the most enduring cause of faction is:



a.

differing political opinion.

b.

unequal distribution of property.

c.

the separations of powers.

d.

the large geographical area of the country.

e.

differing types of political parties.

5. E.E. Schattschneider argues that interest groups:



a.

are bound to control the government.

b.

do not have the unanimity and concentration of power to control all of their members or the government.

c.

reflect the unanimity of the political interests of their members.

d.

represent the perfect political mobilization of interests.

e.

represent the best of the bureaucracy.

6. According to Jeffrey Berry, what was Madison’s dilemma?



a.

“Groups pursue the good of society until governments are formed.”

b.

“The invisible hand fails to provide representation for the masses.”

c.

“If people pursue their self-interest, government will be too weak.”

d.

“If the government does not allow people to pursue their self-interest, it takes away their political freedom.”

e.

“Groups are inherently evil and therefore must be prohibited at all costs.”

7. In Buckley v. Valeo (1976) the core constiutional issues raised were from the:



a.

1st Amendment.

b.

4th Amendment.

c.

5th Amendment.

d.

14th Amendment.

e.

15th Amendment.

8. According to Dahl, One of the major concerns of the founding fathers was:



a.

changing the unequal distribution of wealth.

b.

maintaining their property.

c.

an overextended judiciary.

d.

managing the demands of farmers.

e.

helping farmers to succeed.

9. V.O. Key, Jr. defines critical elections as:



a.

elections that take place during economic depression.

b.

elections occurring during crises.

c.

elections reflecting the realignment of party allegiances.

d.

a frequently recurring phenomenon of the political system.

e.

an infrequently recurring phenomenon of no consequence.

10. According to Ortiz, theories supporting campaign finance reform



a.

follow directly from democratic theory.

b.

are supported more by Democrats than Republicans.

c.

support democratic theory.

d.

emerged from the early days of the Republic.

e.

undermine democratic theory.

11. Throughout the 1980s, the primary and caucus season started off in



a.

California.

b.

New Hampshire.

c.

Iowa.

d.

New York.

e.

B and C

12. The national party conventions meet every _____ years to nominate a presidential candidate.



a.

two

b.

three

c.

four

d.

six

e.

eight

13. Between the national conventions, party affairs are managed by a ______________ made up of delegates from each state and territory.



a.

congressional campaign committee

b.

national caucus

c.

troika

d.

national committee

e.

rules committee

14. This person manages the day-to-day work of the party.



a.

Precinct captain

b.

National chairman

c.

National selectman

d.

National alderman

e.

Organizational deputy

15. The term superdelegate refers to



a.

elected officials and party leaders who are not required to pledge themselves in advance to a presidential candidate.

b.

delegates representing special-interest caucuses, such as those organized to represent blacks or homosexuals.

c.

delegates at large who are chosen by a vote of the national party leadership.

d.

delegates chosen by primary elections and grassroots caucuses.

e.

delegates who received more than 80 percent of the vote necessary to achieve their status.

16. After a decade of reforms, the Democrats and Republicans have come to represent two ideologically different sets of



a.

independent voters.

b.

lower-income voters.

c.

traditional, religious Americans.

d.

first-time voters.

e.

upper-middle-class voters

17. According to the text, the role of national conventions has been transformed by party rules so that the conventions are now



a.

media showcases where newscasters influence the outcome.

b.

places where delegates ratify decisions made by voters.

c.

gatherings where party leaders make important decisions.

d.

gatherings of representatives from interest groups.

e.

places where delegates vote their conscience, regardless of the party’s platform.

18. Within both major parties, it is the ________ level that has most obviously declined.



a.

national

b.

regional

c.

state

d.

district

e.

grassroots

19. To win in a plurality system such as that in the United States, a candidate must



a.

exert considerable inside influence.

b.

win a runoff election.

c.

secure a majority of the votes.

d.

secure at least 70 percent of the votes.

e.

gather more votes than anyone else.

20. Elections based on a plurality system discourage new parties from forming because



a.

a plurality system discourages patronage and reduces voter interest in joining a party.

b.

a plurality system requires parties to form alliances with other parties to win elections.

c.

under this winner-take-all system, no incentive is given for finishing second (or lower).

d.

a plurality system requires each party to be as narrowly based as possible, leaving little room for new parties.

e.

a plurality system gives an advantage to savvy political unknowns who can grab the media spotlight.

21. The most dramatic example of the winner-take-all principle in the U.S. electoral system is the



a.

ideal of pluralism.

b.

municipal elections in Cambridge, Massachusetts.

c.

partisan judicial elections.

d.

two-party system.

e.

electoral college.

22. No third party is likely to win the presidency anytime soon because



a.

the media are biased against them.

b.

state laws discriminate against third parties.

c.

vote turnout is decreasing.

d.

party voting is still quite strong among those who vote.

e.

political participation is increasing.

23. Which of the following kinds of minor parties tends to endure the longest?



a.

Ideological

b.

One-issue

c.

Economic protest

d.

Factional

e.

Consensual

24. Unlike congressional campaigns, presidential campaigns are funded by



a.

private sources only.

b.

public sources only.

c.

both private and public sources.

d.

federal matching grants only.

e.

private sources during the primaries and public sources after the nominations are made.

25. A PAC must have ____ members.



a.

2

b.

8

c.

50

d.

100

e.

120

26. The major issue in the 2008 campaign was



a.

the economy.

b.

the war in Iraq.

c.

the war in Afghanistan.

d.

affirmative action.

e.

health care.

27. The Bipartisan Campaign Finance Reform Act of 2002 raised the individual limit on contributions to _________ per candidate per election.



a.

$1,000

b.

$2,000

c.

$5,000

d.

$10,000

e.

$15,000

28. History suggests that ___ percent of the presidential vote will go to the candidates of the two main parties.



a.

60

b.

70

c.

80

d.

90

e.

99

29. Many scholars argue that the foremost factor in determining how people vote is



a.

debate performance.

b.

perception of the best candidate.

c.

campaign spending.

d.

a candidate’s image.

e.

party identification.

30. Which party tends to be more loyal to its candidate in presidential elections?



a.

Democratic

b.

Republican

c.

Independent

d.

A and C

e.

No clear-cut difference exists among the parties.

31. The text suggests that political junkies are more likely to engage in ________ voting.



a.

issueless

b.

ideological

c.

prospective

d.

retrospective

e.

sociotropic

32. The text suggests that elections are decided by ___________ voters.



a.

“clothespin”

b.

ideological

c.

prospective

d.

retrospective

e.

sociotropic

33. Although campaigns in the United States have historically emphasized broad themes over specific details, what has emerged in recent years is the



a.

power of political parties.

b.

influence of political fat cats.

c.

importance of primary elections.

d.

impact of major political realignments.

e.

influence of lawyers in the selection of candidates.

34. The Republican Party was clearly the dominant party in American politics from



a.

1896 to 1932.

b.

1916 to 1948.

c.

1932 to 1960.

d.

1948 to 1968.

e.

1972 to 1996.

35. It has been observed that interest groups are created more rapidly during some periods than during others. This suggests that these groups



a.

reflect the diversity of U.S. society.

b.

arise when labor is strong.

c.

arise when labor is weak.

d.

arise when social conditions demand action.

e.

do not arise inevitably out of natural social processes.

36. The growth of numerous public-interest lobbies in the 1960s was an example of interest groups that formed as a result of



a.

government policy.

b.

the emergence of talented leadership.

c.

the enlargement of governmental responsibilities.

d.

broad economic developments.

e.

legislative capitulation.

37. An organization that seeks to influence public policy is most accurately referred to as a(n)



a.

interest group.

b.

lobby.

c.

institutional interest.

d.

membership interest.

e.

referenced interest.

38. It is often said that Americans are a nation of



a.

joiners.

b.

protesters.

c.

lobbyists.

d.

activists.

e.

loyalists.

39. The reason Americans participate in civic associations more frequently than do citizens of other countries is



a.

their greater dissatisfaction with the government.

b.

their more intense attachment to parties.

c.

their European heritage.

d.

the fact that they are less sensitive to the free-rider problem.

e.

their sense of political efficacy and civic duty.

40. A major function of local chapters of national membership organizations is to



a.

pursue political objectives at the national level.

b.

represent individual clients to the national organization.

c.

lobby politicians to oppose other groups.

d.

lobby politicians to enact specific laws.

e.

attract members and raise money from them.

41. Organizations that attract members by appealing to a coherent set of usually controversial principles are called



a.

political parties.

b.

pressure groups.

c.

splinter groups.

d.

ideological interest groups.

e.

out-party groups.

42. Public-interest lobbies typically make better progress when the administration is



a.

Republican.

b.

Democratic.

c.

hostile.

d.

friendly.

e.

neutral.

43. The policies of public-interest organizations are predominantly shaped by



a.

the elites who dominate them.

b.

concerned citizens who are not members.

c.

their membership.

d.

corporate sponsors.

e.

B and C

44. Feminist social movements were evident in



a.

the 1830s.

b.

the 1890s.

c.

the 1920s.

d.

the 1960s.

e.

all of the above.

45. In the early years of the republic, newspapers were financially supported by



a.

advertising.

b.

payments from the Associated Press.

c.

subsidies from political parties and politicians.

d.

mass circulation.

e.

religious clubs and organizations.

46. In the era of the party press, readership consisted of



a.

citizens from all walks of life.

b.

farmers.

c.

government employees and officials.

d.

immigrants.

e.

a small number of well-educated people.

47. An important factor in the development of less-partisan newspapers during the nineteenth century was the growth of



a.

paid advertising, which reduced the need for party subsidies.

b.

political patronage, which contributed needed funds to editors.

c.

a large rural population, which balanced the urban bias of newspapers.

d.

government subsidies, which gave editors a strong financial base.

e.

Supreme Court rulings that involved charges of libel.

48. At the turn of the twentieth century, the growing media sensationalism influencing public opinion was known as



a.

purple prose.

b.

yellow journalism.

c.

muckraking.

d.

pack journalism.

e.

shock lit.

49. The medium that first allowed public officials to reach the public in a relatively unfiltered manner was



a.

the national magazine.

b.

the national newspaper.

c.

radio.

d.

the New York Times.

e.

the wire service.

50. A member of Congress who wishes to maximize his or her news media attention is well advised to



a.

propose increasing taxes.

b.

propose lowering taxes.

c.

praise the president.

d.

attack the president.

e.

author new legislation.

51. In recent years, __________ have particularly turned away from political news.



a.

Democrats

b.

Republicans

c.

middle-class voters

d.

liberals

e.

young people

52. Most of the national news that local papers publish comes from



a.

local affiliates.

b.

their own news staffs.

c.

television networks.

d.

wire services.

e.

investigative reporting.

53. The text suggests that radio and television stations often decide what to broadcast by looking at



a.

FOX News.

b.

official reports of the government.

c.

White House press releases.

d.

the front pages of the New York Times and the Washington Post.

e.

All of the above

54. The television weekly 60 Minutes runs a segment on the role of local politicians in the drug trade. The issue soon becomes the subject of national debate. In these circumstances, 60 Minutes is acting as



a.

a gatekeeper.

b.

a scorekeeper.

c.

a watchdog.

d.

a investigator.

e.

B and C.

55. Which amendment to the U.S. Constitution prevents the government from censoring the media?



a.

The First

b.

The Fifth

c.

The Sixth

d.

The Twenty-first

e.

None of the above

56. The media typically report presidential elections as horse races because of the media’s role as



a.

arbiter.

b.

watchdog.

c.

scorekeeper.

d.

mirror of reality.

e.

mediator.

57. The national media often play the role of watchdog. This means that they can



a.

influence public opinion on most issues.

b.

influence what subjects become national political issues.

c.

prevent certain politicians from winning office by not covering their campaigns.

d.

expose scandals and investigate personalities.

e.

track swings in public assessments of candidates.

58. Unlike big-city newspapers, radio and television stations must



a.

identify their audience and cultivate a lasting relationship.

b.

rely on paid advertising from multiple sources.

c.

get their national news from wire services.

d.

operate profitably while still providing balanced news coverage.

e.

have a government license to operate.

59. If a communication is “on background,” then



a.

the reporter can quote an official by name.

b.

what an official says cannot be used.

c.

what an official says can be used but may not be attributed to him or her by name.

d.

what the official says cannot be attributed to anyone, even an anonymous source.

e.

the reporters can quote an official by name with a court order.

60. Which of the following statements about newspapers during the early years of the republic is true?



a.

They were cheaper than today.

b.

They made little or no attempt to appear objective.

c.

They were supported by paid advertising.

d.

They were read avidly by both the elite and the masses.

e.

They were generally objective.

AP Unit 3 Test

Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A
2. C
3. E
4. B
5. B
6. D
7. A
8. B
9. C
10. E
11. E
12. C
13. D
14. B
15. A
16. E
17. B
18. E
19. E
20. C
21. E
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. C
26. A
27. B
28. C
29. E
30. B
31. C
32. D
33. C
34. A
35. E
36. C
37. A
38. A
39. E
40. E
41. D
42. C
43. A
44. E
45. C
46. E
47. A
48. B
49. C
50. D
51. E
52. D
53. D
54. A
55. A
56. C
57. D
58. E
59. C
60. B


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