Title: ap review 2 Multiple Choice



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Title: AP Review 2
Multiple Choice

1. High-tech politics refers to

a. a futuristic society in which politics is controlled by computers, freeing people for more honorable pursuits.

b. the ability of government to observe the behavior of citizens through electronic means.

c. a politics in which the behavior of citizens and policymakers is shaped by technology.

d. a proposal for direct democracy through the use of telephone voting.

e. the use of cable television to broadcast the workings of the government.

ANS: C
2. A media event is

a. staged primarily for the purpose of being covered by the press.

b. a news event deemed of such importance to break into regular programming on television and radio.

c. a setup by the media to ambush or embarrass a prominent person.

d. a gathering of people working in the media industry, often an awards ceremony.

e. some newsworthy occurrence covered by reporters of the various media.

ANS: A
3. The first president to manipulate media politics with many press conferences and fireside chats successfully was

a. Abraham Lincoln.

b. John F. Kennedy.

c. Franklin Roosevelt.

d. Ronald Reagan.

e. Lyndon Johnson.

ANS: C
4. The use of detective-like reporting methods to unearth scandals is known as

a. trial balloons.

b. print journalism.

c. investigative journalism.

d. scientific journalism.

e. yellow journalism.

ANS: C
5. The cozy relationship between politicians and the press in the twentieth century lasted until

a. the Iranian Hostage Crisis.

b. the Vietnam War and Watergate.

c. the beginning of Franklin Roosevelt's presidency.

d. World War II.

e. the commercialization of television.

ANS: B
6. At the turn of the century, newspaper magnates Joseph and William Randolph Hearst ushered in the era of

a. penny press.

b. yellow journalism.

c. political advertising.

d. nickel tabloids.

e. newspaper chains.

ANS: B
7. The nation's most influential newspaper and its unofficial "newspaper of record" is

a. USA Today.

b. the Wall Street Journal.

c. Congressional Quarterly.

d. the Washington Post.

e. The New York Times.

ANS: E
8. The principle source of news and information in the United States is

a. the print media.

b. the broadcast media.

c. newspapers.

d. radio talk shows.

e. magazines and radio.

ANS: B
9. Television news programs are tailored to

a. a fairly low level of audience sophistication.

b. male audiences in their twenties and thirties with high disposable incomes.

c. white middle-class America.

d. a highly educated audience.

e. an urban population.

ANS: A
10. Sound bites are

a. negative political advertisements that offer quick attacks on one's opponent.

b. negative news coverage received by a public figure. They hurt!

c. leaks by official sources used to test the political waters.

d. a form of censorship widely used in Great Britain.

e. short clips of a political speech lasting fifteen seconds or less.

ANS: E
11. The policy agenda is

a. a schedule of bills before Congress.

b. a set of issues or problems that the public considers important.

c. a list of priorities to which government officials address their time and energies.

d. a linkage institution between people and government.

e. all of the above

ANS: C
12. Which of the following is TRUE of political parties in the United States?

a. They are more powerful than their European counterparts.

b. Party members agree on all major issues or they will be expelled from the party.

c. Parties require dues.

d. To be a member of a party, all you have to do is claim to be one.

e. Parties issue membership cards to all members.

ANS: D
13. A party's endorsement to officially run for office as the candidate of that party is called

a. a confirmation.

b. an appointment.

c. a ballot.

d. a nomination.

e. a ticket.

ANS: D
14. Political parties perform all of the following tasks EXCEPT

a. advocate public policies.

b. coordinate policymaking.

c. give cues to voters.

d. enforce rigid adherence to their policy positions.

e. pick policymakers and run campaigns.

ANS: D
15. The theory that seeks to explain political processes and outcomes as consequences of purposive behavior is called the

a. rational-choice theory.

b. goals theory.

c. cognitive theory.

d. behaviorism.

e. means-ends theory.

ANS: A
16. Ticket-splitting is best understood as

a. voting with one party for one office and another for other offices.

b. voting for Democratic candidates for president and Republican candidates for Congress.

c. staying with the same party in an election, voting down the party's line for every race.

d. voting for Republican candidates for president and Democratic candidates for Congress.

e. a tactic used to commit voter fraud, which enables a voter to cast multiple ballots.

ANS: A
17. Most Americans are

a. moderate-liberals.

b. moderate.

c. conservative.

d. non-ideological.

e. liberal.

ANS: B
18. Party machines in large cities relied primarily on ________ to reward friends and punish enemies.

a. local judges

b. third parties

c. the civil service merit system

d. patronage

e. city police departments

ANS: D
19. In open primaries,

a. voters may vote for multiple candidates.

b. voters may choose on election day which party primary they want to participate in.

c. voters may vote for candidates from either party.

d. only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote.

e. none of the above

ANS: B
20. In closed primaries,

a. voters may choose on election day which party primary they want to participate in.

b. voters may vote for multiple candidates.

c. voters may vote for candidates from either party.

d. only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote.

e. none of the above

ANS: D


21. In blanket primaries,

a. voters may vote for candidates from either party.

b. voters may choose on election day which party primary they want to participate in.

c. only voters who have registered in advance with the party can vote.

d. voters may vote for multiple candidates.

e. none of the above

ANS: A
22.The chairperson of the party that controls the White House is normally selected by

A .closed primary.

b. members of the party in Congress.

c. a committee of state chairpersons.

d. the president.

e. none of the above

ANS: D
23. The day-to-day activities of the national party are the responsibility of the

a. national committee.

b. national chairperson.

c. national convention.

d. congressional party leaders.

e. president.

ANS: B
24. A party era refers to

a. a period of years during which a party is born and begins to run candidates for office.

b. a period of time during which there is one dominant majority party that wins all elections.

c. the period between two elections, during which the two parties are assessed as to how powerful they are relative to each other.

d. a period of history in which there is one dominant majority party that wins most elections.

e. the life span of a party from its beginning to end (e.g., the Whigs..

ANS: D
25. Party realignments in the United States

a. involve the death of one party and the birth of a brand new one.

b. happen after most presidential elections, and occasionally in-between.

c. are rare events in the United States, usually associated with a major national crisis or trauma, in which one party's majority domination is replaced with another's.

d. occur when a party makes dramatic changes in its positions on issues.

e. are slight adjustments of political allegiance among voters in at least one region of the country.

ANS: C

26. The first party system in the United States consisted of the

a. Democrats and Whigs.

b. Federalists and Whigs.

c. Federalists and Democratic-Republicans.

d. Democratic-Republicans and Whigs.

e. Democrats and Republicans.

ANS: C
27. The New Deal coalition was responsible for electing and reelecting

a. Republicans.

b. Democratic-Republicans.

c. Democrats.

d. Whigs.

e. Socialist party candidates.

ANS: C
28. People gradually moving away from both parties is referred to as

a. coalition politics.

b. partisan drift.

c. realignment.

d. dealignment.

e. alignment.

ANS: D
29. The first true anti-slavery party was the

a. Anti-slavery party.

b. Free Soil party.

c. Republican party.

d. Progressive party.

e. Populist party.

ANS: B
30. In proportional representation systems,

a. whoever gets the most votes wins the election.

b. legislative seats are allocated according to each party's percentage of the nationwide vote.

c. each demographic group is allocated a certain number of positions in the government, in proportion to that group's percentage of the population.

d. every party gets represented in the legislature.

e. coalition governments usually last for many years.

ANS: B


31. The American two-party system promotes

a. moderation in conflict and ambiguous policy positions.

b. greater conflict, but clear policy choices.

c. competitive elections.

d. the organization of political parties around special interests.

e. the weakness of centrist positions on policy issues.

ANS: A
32. The first presidential caucus of the campaign season is traditionally held in

a. Iowa.

b. Delaware.

c. Minnesota.

d. New Hampshire.

e. California.

ANS: A
33. To be the presidential candidate of a major political party, a person must

a. first be nominated by the electoral college.

b. win a majority of party primaries in the states.

c. win a majority of the delegates at the party's national convention.

d. win a majority of the delegates elected from state caucuses.

e. have the endorsement of incumbent party leaders.

ANS: C
34. Following the Democratic National Convention in Chicago in 1968, the party chose to

a. open up its process of choosing delegates to the national convention in order to respond to demands for greater inclusion from women, minorities, youth, and other groups.

b. limit attendance at future conventions to the party's nationwide elected government officeholders.

c. tighten up its convention delegate selection to keep it from being overrun by women, minorities, youth, and single-issue groups.

d. allow party officers and Democratic officeholders, many of whom had not been seated at recent conventions, to serve as "super delegates."

e. limit attendance at future conventions to the elected officers of the party's organizations nationwide.

ANS: A

35. The McGovern-Fraser Commission



a. strengthened the role of the party's national committee.

b. chose presidential candidates for the Democratic party.

c. had a mandate to make the Democratic party conventions more democratic.

d. established the dates of presidential primaries.

e. investigated violations of campaign finance law in 1968.

ANS: C
36. The addition of superdelegates to the Democratic national conventions was spearheaded by

a. the McGovern-Fraser Commission.

b. President Jimmy Carter.

c. those who felt the Warren Commission had led to unrepresentative delegate selection.

d. the Warren Commission.

e. those who felt the McGovern-Fraser Commission had opened up the delegate selection process too much.

ANS: E


37. The New Hampshire primary is important because

a. it is the first primary.

b. New Hampshire has a very large number of delegates.

c. New Hampshire is a particularly typical state.

d. it is the primary held closest to the time of the convention.

e. it involves the first caucuses.

ANS: A
38. Critics of the primary and caucus system point to the fact that

a. participation in primaries and caucuses is unrepresentative of the public at large.

b. no precedent for them is written into the Constitution.

c. disproportionate attention goes to the later caucuses and primaries.

d. only the best known candidates have a chance of winning the primaries and caucuses.

e. none of the above

ANS: A
39. The vice-presidential nominee is usually

a. selected by the presidential nominee in the weeks after the convention.

b. a close friend from the same state as the presidential nominee.

c. selected by the delegates as something of a formality, as the vast majority always vote for whomever the presidential nominee picks.

d. selected by the delegates without a recommendation from the presidential nominee.

e. the runner-up for the presidential nomination, and often someone whom the presidential nominee does not like.

ANS: C

40. News coverage of presidential campaigns tends to emphasize



a. debates between the candidates.

b. campaign strategies and poll results.

c. the voting and performance records of the candidates in their current offices.

d. the candidates' positions on the issues.

e. fair coverage of all the candidates.

ANS: B
41. The Federal Election Campaign Act

a. ended public financing for presidential campaigns.

b. provided public financing for Senate and House races.

c. required all candidates for federal office to disclose all contributions made to their campaigns.

d. removed spending limits from presidential campaigns.

e. required broadcasters to provide free air time to each major candidate for federal office.

ANS: C
42. The administration of the campaign finance laws and the enforcement of compliance with their requirements is handled by the

a. Government Accounting Office.

b. Federal Election Commission.

c. Campaign Finance Bureau of the Department of the Treasury.

d. Department of Justice.

e. Fair Political Practices Commission.

ANS: B
43. In the 1976 case of Buckley v. Valeo, the Supreme Court ruled that

a. the limitation on the amount of money people could contribute to their own election campaigns was not a violation of free speech, and was constitutional.

b. the limitation on the amount of money persons could contribute to their own election campaigns violated free speech, and was unconstitutional.

c. presidential election campaigns could not be paid for by tax dollars.

d. the forced disclosure of contributions to federal elections violated freedom of association, and was therefore unconstitutional.

e. congressional and state legislative districts must be of equal population and reapportioned every ten years.

ANS: B


44. Soft money is

a. money donated to parties rather than candidates, thus not subject to contribution or spending limits.

b. cash contributions that are not traceable and in some situations illegal.

c. money donated by a person to his or her own campaign.

d. money loaned to a campaign, but expected to be paid back.

e. small donations that, while important to a campaign, are not as important as larger contributions.

ANS: A
45. Donating $200,000 to a political party to help its presidential nominee in somewhat indirect ways is

a. illegal under the McCain-Feingold Act.

b. illegal under the Federal Election Campaign Act (FECa..

c. of unclear legality and the subject of a controversial and vague Supreme Court ruling.

d. legal, and known as a PAC contribution.

e. legal, and known as soft money.

ANS: A
46. PAC is an acronym for

a. the Partisan Activities Commission.

b. political access conveyance.

c. positive action campaign.

d. political action committee.

e. power-as-cash.

ANS: D
47. The relationship between campaign spending and electoral success is that

a. the more incumbents spend, the more likely they are to be reelected.

b. spending more than your opponent does not assure victory.

c. the amount of money spent and winning are entirely unrelated.

d. the candidate who spends the most is sure to win.

e. none of the above

ANS: B
48. The process of selecting America's leaders has almost no downtime before it revs up all over again. This is referred to as

a. the permanent campaign.

b. accountability.

c. revolving elections.

d. election mania.

e. the revolving door.

ANS: A

49. Legitimacy in terms of American elections means

a. the public is satisfied with the qualifications and the policy positions of the candidates.

b. the best candidate is selected.

c. the public is nearly unanimously happy with the results.

d. the election is nearly unanimously accepted as a fair and free method to select political leaders.

e. the public is generally not satisfied with the candidates, the results, or the methods by which elections are held.

ANS: D
50. The initiative is put on the ballot as a result of

a. a petition signed by a certain percentage of the voters in the previous election.

b. a special, legally constituted convention voting to place it there.

c. public opinion polls showing strong support for a certain measure not acted upon by the legislature.

d. a Supreme Court ruling.

e. the governor's order.

ANS: A
51. A referendum is an election

a. whereby voters are given the chance to approve or disapprove some legislative act or constitutional amendment.

b. for judicial offices.

c. in which citizens can propose their own legislation.

d. to determine whether to remove an elected official from office before the end of their term.

e. for choosing party nominees for state offices.

ANS: A
52. The issue of free silver (to increase the amount of currency in circulation. was championed in the election of 1896 by ________, whose most famous oration was his "Cross of Gold" speech at the Democratic national convention.

a. William Jennings Bryan

b. Theodore Roosevelt

c. William McKinley

d. Woodrow Wilson

e. Grover Cleveland

ANS: A
53. The election of 1800 was

a. decided by the electoral college.

b. overturned by the Supreme Court.

c. decided by the House of Representatives.

d. decided by the direct vote of the people.

e. decided by the full Congress.

ANS: C


54. Because Bush's lead over Gore in the initial count was less than one-tenth of one percent, Florida law mandated

a. an automatic recount.

b. that the Florida state legislature vote to declare Bush the winner.

c. the Secretary of State to certify the results.

d. a thirty-day extension for absentee ballots.

e. the outcome of the election be determined by the Florida Supreme Court.

ANS: A
55. Suffrage means

a. voting for the loser.

b. voting for the winner.

c. turning out to vote.

d. the right to vote.

e. the struggle for equal rights for women.

ANS: D
56. Political efficacy refers to the belief that

a. significant policy differences exist between the parties.

b. government is very inefficient and needs to be streamlined.

c. ordinary people can influence the government.

d. the costs of voting outweigh the benefits.

e. one should always support democratic government.

ANS: C
57. Voter registration was begun around the turn of the twentieth century

a. to discourage patronage.

b. to encourage voting through advance notice.

c. by party bosses to discourage people from voting.

d. to allow for the secret ballot.

e. to make elections more ethical.

ANS: E
58. Compared to other industrialized democracies, the United States has a ________ voter turnout.

a. much lower

b. slightly higher

c. rising

d. much higher

e. slightly lower

ANS: A
59. In a winner-take-all system,

a. coalition governments are common.

b. if no single party gets a majority vote, a runoff election is held between the top two parties.

c. unless a party wins, there is no reward for the votes it gets.

d. the party winning the majority of the votes wins all the seats up for election in the legislature.

e. legislative seats are allocated according to each party's percentage of the nationwide vote.

ANS: C
60. The Motor Voter Act of 1993

a. requires states to mail voter registration forms to all individuals holding driver's licenses.

b. requires states to register individuals to vote when they apply for, or renew, their driver's license.

c. requires states to provide transportation for citizens who are unable to get to the polls on their own efforts.

d. requires the federal government to register individuals to vote when they apply for or renew their driver's license.

e. established drive-in polling places to make voting more convenient and increase voter turnout.

ANS: B
61. The group of people with the lowest voter turnout rate is

a. young people.

b. union members.

c. women.

d. college graduates.

e. senior citizens over 70.

ANS: A
62. Which of the following characteristics would make one more likely to vote in an election?

a. having a college degree

b. being a young adult

c. bring a welfare recipient

d. being a college student

e. having a low income

ANS: A
63. ________ occurs when people base their choices in an election on their own issue preferences.

a. Retrospective voting

b. Policy voting

c. Suffrage

d. Agenda setting

e. Civic duty

ANS: B
64. The "electors" in the electoral college are

a. selected by state legislatures well in advance of the presidential election, and each elector votes his or her own conscience as to who would be the best president.

b. the members of the House from each state, who vote strictly according to who won the majority of their district's votes.

c. the members of Congress from each state, who vote strictly according to who won the majority of their state's votes.

d. selected by state parties, usually as a reward for faithful service to the party over the years.

e. a bipartisan group of political scientists, public officials, jurists, and other respected individuals chosen by the governor of each state.

ANS: D
65. If no candidate receives an electoral college majority,

a. the candidate with the plurality of electoral votes is automatically elected.

b. a runoff election is held nationwide between the top two vote-getters.

c. the House of Representatives chooses among the top three electoral vote winners.

d. Congress is free to elect the president.

e. the electoral college takes a second ballot between the top two vote-getters, and the candidate who wins the majority is elected.

ANS: C
66. According to ________ theorists, interest groups compete and counterbalance one another in the political marketplace.

a. hyperelitist

b. pluralist

c. hyperpluralist

d. elitist

e. free market

ANS: B

67. An organization of people with similar policy goals entering the political process to try to achieve those aims is called



a. a political action committee.

b. an interest group.

c. a political corporation.

d. a political party.

e. a collective.

ANS: B
68. According to James Madison in Federalist Paper No. 1, the way to prevent any one group from having too much power is to

a. strictly regulate them.

b. eliminate most groups.

c. increase the scope and number of groups.

d. make them unconstitutional.

e. none of the above

ANS: C
69. The idea that just a few groups have all the power is associated with

a. hyperpluralist theory.

b. syndicalism.

c. democratic theory.

d. pluralist theory.

e. elite theory.

ANS: E
70. Interest group liberalism is criticized especially by ________ theorists.

a. hyperpluralist

b. elitist

c. social-conservative

d. hyperelitist

e. pluralist

ANS: A
71. Interest group liberalism is promoted by

a. ideologically liberal interest groups and not conservative groups.

b. subgovernments.

c. hyperpluralists.

d. one group winning and another losing in the competition for government action or funding.

e. all of the above

ANS: B

72. A(n. ________ group is composed of all people who might be group members because they share some common interest.

a. latent

b. actual

c. single-issue

d. interest

e. potential

ANS: E
73. The free-rider problem refers to

a. unrelated amendments being added to a piece of legislation in order to bypass usual procedures.

b. mass transit scofflaws who endanger government aid to subways, buses, and commuter trains by not being officially counted.

c. potential members of a group failing to join the actual group, as they know they will receive the same benefits whether they are active members or not.

d. welfare fraud and the costs it imposes on government and taxpayers.

e. legislators who face no election opponents, and thus are automatically reelected.

ANS: C
74. According to Olson's Law of Large Groups,

a. large groups are more democratic.

b. the larger the group, the more effective it will be.

c. the smaller the group, the more effective it will be.

d. the size of a group does not determine its effectiveness, the leadership structure is the key.

e. all groups have a life cycle of birth, growth, maintenance, and decline, although many never decline completely.

ANS: C
75. A "collective good" refers to

a. a public policy that is in the public interest.

b. something of value that benefits both the actual and potential members of a group.

c. benefits that accrue to the group that sought them.

d. goods and services collected for the needy.

e. goods and services that are publicly owned.

ANS: B
76. An advantage of single-issue groups is their

a. pool of actual members.

b. pool of potential members.

c. diversity.

d. intensity.

e. financial resources.

ANS: D

77. ________ is a communication by someone other than a citizen acting on his or her own behalf, directed to a government decision maker, particularly in the legislative and executive branch, with the hope of influencing his or her decision.



a. Campaigning

b. An amicus curiae brief

c. Litigation

d. Electioneering

e. Lobbying

ANS: E
78. Many interest groups involve themselves in ________ to help get those they consider to be the right people into office or to keep them there.

a. electioneering

b. litigation

c. policymaking

d. lobbying

e. recruitment
79. Retrospective voting refers to voting for

a. a candidate because of his or her past stands on the issues.

b. a candidate who promises to continue policies that have made you feel better off.

c. the same party and candidates election after election.

d. candidates for nostalgic reasons because they promise to return the country to some golden age in its past.

e. different parties and candidates election after election.

ANS: B
80. Which of the following is NOT true about Political Action Committees?

a. There are far more PACs now than there were in 1974.

b. Some PACs contribute to both challenger and incumbent, playing it safe.

c. Most PAC money goes to challengers rather than incumbents.

d. PACs contribute before and after elections.

e. Only a handful of candidates have completely resisted the lure of PAC money.

ANS: C
81. ________ enables a group of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit.

a. A collective civil suit

b. An amicus curiae brief

c. Olson's Law of Large Groups

d. A class action lawsuit

e. A public interest suit

ANS: D

82. Amicus curiae briefs

a. are written explanations of a court decision.

b. are lawsuits submitted by interest groups.

c. consist of written arguments submitted to the courts in support of one side of a case.

d. are legal arguments submitted by the president's attorneys advocating the United States government's position in an important federal court case.

e. enable groups of similarly situated plaintiffs to combine similar grievances into a single suit.

ANS: C
83. Right-to-work laws are most strongly supported by

a. business groups.

b. union officials.

c. the feminist and civil rights movements.

d. illegal immigrants.

e. unemployed citizens.

ANS: A
84. The ________ movement was spurred by a single person: Ralph Nader.

a. anti-Vietnam War

b. gay rights

c. modern civil rights movement

d. consumer

e. American labor

ANS: D
85. Which of the following did the framers of the Constitution conceive of as the center of policymaking in America?

a. the Supreme Court

b. the people

c. the courts

d. Congress

e. the president

ANS: D
86. ________ privileges refer to the free use of the mails enjoyed by Congress.

a. Conmail

b. E-mail

c. Franking

d. Procurement

e. Junket

ANS: C


87. The most common prior occupation for members of Congress is

a. law.

b. education.

c. business.

d. state legislator.

e. public service.

ANS: A
88. How many senators are elected from each state?

a. the same number as it has electors in the electoral college

b. one

c. two


d. four

e. it depends on a state's population

ANS: C
89. The pork barrel and casework are examples of

a. position-taking.

b. opportunities for credit-claiming by members of Congress.

c. congressional continuity.

d. advertising techniques.

e. descriptive representation.

ANS: B
90. Federal grants and contracts that members of Congress try to obtain for their constituents are collectively referred to as

a. casework.

b. public service.

c. the pork barrel.

d. perquisites.

e. affirmative action.

ANS: C
91. Bicameralism means that a legislative body is one

a. in which there are only two political parties.

b. in which each state has two senators, providing equal representation of the states.

c. with two houses, providing checks and balances on policymaking.

d. that must share power with a president, providing more efficient policymaking.

e. in which incumbents have a better chance of being reelected, providing continuity in policymaking.

ANS: C
92. A Senate seat is up for election every

a. five years.

b. four years.

c. two years.

d. six years.

e. eight years.

ANS: D
93. House seats are up for election every

a. eight years.

b. four years.

c. two years.

d. six years.

e. five years.

ANS: C
94. According to the Constitution, revenue bills must originate in the

a. Senate.

b. Federal Reserve System.

c. Internal Revenue Service.

d. Treasury Department.

e. House.

ANS: E
95. Nominees to the United States Supreme Court must be confirmed by

a. the Senate.

b. the House.

c. both the House and the Senate.

d. the president.

e. either the House or the Senate.

ANS: A
96. The ________ has the job of presiding over the Senate, breaking ties when necessary.

a. vice president

b. majority whip

c. majority leader

d. minority leader

e. Speaker

ANS: A

97. The filibuster is a technique used in the

a. Senate to bypass committees in voting on controversial issues.

b. House and Senate to prevent a vote on a bill.

c. House to delay legislation until a full House can convene.

d. Senate to prolong debate in order to kill a bill.

e. House to allow more time to debate controversial policies.

ANS: D
98. Traditionally, Congressional committee chairpersons have been chosen through

a. popularity with majority leaders.

b. party rank.

c. the merit system.

d. the seniority system.

e. a majority vote by committee members.

ANS: D
99. Most of the business of Congress takes place

a. on the floor of the House and Senate.

b. during evening social functions.

c. in committees and subcommittees.

d. in the Rules committees.

e. in congressional districts.

ANS: C
100. Only ________ can formally submit a bill for congressional consideration.

a. the president

b. members of the House

c. members of the House or senators

d. the Speaker of the House

e. senators

ANS: C
101. Most bills formally submitted for consideration in Congress

a. are passed and signed into law.

b. are defeated in close final votes on the floors of one chamber.

c. pass one house, but are killed in the other house.

d. are quietly killed off early in the process.



e. are passed, but vetoed by the president.

ANS: D


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