Potassium ions



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1.

Examination of ice found on Mars has revealed that it contains some of the elements needed for life. Which of the following has not been found in the ice?

A)

Potassium ions

B)

Magnesium ions

C)

Glucose

D)

Sodium ions

E)

Chlorine ions



2.

Examination of ice from Mars suggests that

A)

life may not be limited to Earth.

B)

life originated in outer space from nonliving matter.

C)

comets brought Earth most of its water.

D)

meteorites brought life to Earth.

E)

meteorites are responsible for Earth's magnetic field.



3.

A nucleotide contains a pentose sugar, a phosphate group, and

A)

a lipid.

B)

an acid.

C)

a nitrogen-containing base.

D)

an amino acid.

E)

a glycerol.



4.

The difference between nucleosides and nucleotides is

A)

only nucleotides have nitrogenous bases.

B)

a phosphate groups is found in nucleotides but not in nucleosides.

C)

nucleotides have the pentose sugar ribose while nucleosides have the pentose sugar deoxyribose.

D)

in nucleosides the monomers are joined by phosphodiester bonds; in nucleotides the monomers are joined by hydrogen bonds.

E)

nucleosides are the monomers of DNA; nucleotides are the monomers of RNA.



5.

The bases of nucleic acids are purines or pyrimidines. Purines and pyrimidines are distinguished by the fact that

A)

purines include the bases of cytosine and thymine; pyrimidines include the bases of adenine and guanine.

B)

pyrimidines are found in RNA; purines are found in DNA.

C)

purines consist of hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen, whereas pyrimidines have phosphorus, hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, and nitrogen.

D)

purines only have single bonds in their structure, whereas pyrimidines have both single and double bonds in their structure.

E)

purines are double-ring structures, whereas pyrimidines are single-ring structures.



6.

Ribose and deoxyribose are both found in nucleic acids. The difference between ribose and deoxyribose is that

A)

deoxyribose has one less oxygen molecule than ribose has.

B)

ribose is a pentose sugar, whereas deoxyribose is a hexose sugar.

C)

deoxyribose is found in DNA, whereas ribose is found in RNA.

D)

Both a and b

E)

Both a and c



7.

The “backbone” of a nucleic acid molecule is made of

A)

nitrogenous bases.

B)

alternating sugars and phosphate groups.

C)

purines.

D)

pyrimidines.

E)

nucleosides.



8.

Which of the following is not a difference between DNA and RNA?

A)

DNA has thymine, whereas RNA has uracil.

B)

DNA usually has two polynucleotide strands, whereas RNA usually has one strand.

C)

DNA has deoxyribose sugar, whereas RNA has ribose sugar.

D)

DNA is a polymer, whereas RNA is a monomer.

E)

In DNA, A pairs with T, whereas in RNA, A pairs with U.



9.

What is attached to the 5´-carbon of deoxyribose in DNA?

A)

Adenine

B)

Phosphate

C)

Guanine

D)

Thymine

E)

Hydrogen



10.

According to the principle of complementary base pairing, purines always pair with

A)

deoxyribose sugars.

B)

uracil.

C)

pyrimidines.

D)

adenine.

E)

guanine.



11.

What is the nucleotide sequence of the complementary strand of the DNA molecule: A A T G C G A?

A)

T T A C G C T

B)

A A T G C G A

C)

G G C A T A G

D)

C C G T T A T

E)

A G C G T A A



12.

DNA differs from RNA in that

A)

RNA contains uracil instead of thymine.

B)

RNA is single stranded; DNA is double stranded.

C)

RNA leaves the nucleus: DNA does not.

D)

RNA contains ribose; DNA contains deoxyribose.

E)

All of the above



13.

All of the following bases are found in DNA except

A)

thymine.

B)

adenine.

C)

uracil.

D)

guanine.

E)

cytosine



14.

What type of bond connects two complementary nucleotides together?

A)

Hydrogen

B)

Ionic

C)

Peptide

D)

Phosphodiester

E)

Covalent



15.

Which of the following depend on complementary base pairing?

A)

DNA replication

B)

Transcription

C)

Translation

D)

Both a and b

E)

All of the above



16.

Complementary base pairing is due to the

A)

geometry of the sugar–phosphate backbone.

B)

pairing of a purine with a pyrimidine.

C)

hydrogen bonding sites.

D)

Both a and b

E)

All of the above



17.

The diversity in DNA molecules is due to

A)

physical shape differences of the molecule.

B)

functional differences in DNA molecules.

C)

base sequence differences in the DNA molecule.

D)

hydrogen bonding differences found in the DNA molecule.

E)

complementary base pairing differences in DNA molecules.



18.

Single-stranded RNA can fold on itself, creating three-dimensional structures such as tRNA. The folds are stabilized by _______ bonds.

A)

hydrogen

B)

ionic

C)

phosphodiester

D)

peptide

E)

glycosidic



19.

The four nitrogenous bases of RNA are abbreviated as

A)

A, G, C, and T.

B)

A, G, T, and N.

C)

G, C, U, and N.

D)

A, G, U, and T.

E)

A, G, C, and U.



20.

The double-helix structure of DNA is the result of

A)

complementary base pairings.

B)

purines bonding with pyrimidines.

C)

the phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose and phosphate.

D)

hydrogen bonding of the two complementary polynucleotide strands.

E)

ionic bonding of base pairs.



21.

In DNA, A pairs with T, and C pairs with G; these are examples of a specific type of reaction called

A)

complementary base pairing.

B)

a dehydration reaction.

C)

a reduction reaction.

D)

a hydrophobic reaction.

E)

a purine–purine reaction.



22.

Complementary base pairing can be explained by

A)

the relative sizes of purines and pyrimidines.

B)

the alternating sugar–phosphate groups.

C)

an examination of evolutionary relationships.

D)

the differences found in RNA and DNA.

E)

the diversity found in proteins.



23.

What accounts for the stability of the DNA molecule?

A)

The bonds between purines and pyrimidines

B)

Phosphodiester bonds between the nitrogenous bases

C)

Strong hydrogen bonds between the sugar and phosphate groups

D)

Its double-helix shape

E)

The direct bonding of the base to the phosphate molecule



24.

DNA carries genetic information in its

A)

helical form.

B)

sequence of bases.

C)

tertiary sequence.

D)

sequence of amino acids.

E)

phosphate groups.



25.

The central dogma of molecular biology states that

A)

the genetic code is ambiguous.

B)

the information flow between DNA, RNA, and a protein is reversible.

C)

the information flow in a cell is from DNA to RNA to protein.

D)

the information flow in a cell is from protein to RNA to DNA.

E)

the information flow in a cell is from DNA to a protein to RNA.



26.

Which of the following is true?

A)

DNA is completely replicated but only partially transcribed.

B)

DNA is partially replicated but completely transcribed.

C)

Transcription is activated at different times in different cells of the body.

D)

Both a and c are true.

E)

Both b and c are true.



27.

Consider the following double-stranded DNA region:

TGCCAT


ACGGTA

If the lower strand is transcribed, which of the following strands will result?



A)

TGCCAT

B)

TCGGTA

C)

UGCCAU

D)

UGCCUA

E)

TCGGUT



28.

Which of the following is not a nucleotide?

A)

Guanosine triphosphate

B)

Cyclic adenosine monophosphate

C)

An amino acid

D)

Adenosine triphospate

E)

Ribonucleic acid



29.

In 1668, Francesco Redi did some experiments to disprove spontaneous generation. He began by putting pieces of meat into identical jars. Some jars were left open to the air, and some were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: instead of sealing the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (which kept out flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to the air). In both experiments, he checked if fly maggots appeared in the meat or not. What hypothesis was being tested?

A)

Spontaneous generation is more likely to occur during the hot days of summer.

B)

Maggots do not arise spontaneously but from eggs laid by adult flies.

C)

The type of meat affects whether spontaneous generation occurs.

D)

Spontaneous generation can occur only if air is present.

E)

Flies will develop from rotting meat if the meat is exposed to air.



30.

A prerequisite for life on Earth or any other planet is

A)

sunlight.

B)

water.

C)

amino acids.

D)

nitrogen.

E)

carbon dioxide.



31.

Life on Earth arose approximately _______ years ago.

A)

6.4 billion

B)

4 billion

C)

600 million

D)

2,000

E)

2 million



32.

Examination of meteorites suggests that

A)

life is not limited to Earth.

B)

life originated in outer space from nonliving matter.

C)

comets brought Earth most of its water.

D)

meteorites brought life to Earth.

E)

meteorites are responsible for Earth's magnetic field.



33.

Spontaneous generation was finally disproved by

A)

Stanley Miller.

B)

Harold Urey.

C)

Francesco Redi and Louis Pasteur.

D)

Allan Hills.

E)

Johannes van der Waals.



34.

Examination of meteorites has revealed that they contain the chemistry of life. All of the following have been found in meteorites except

A)

purines and pyrimidines.

B)

amino acids.

C)

glucose.

D)

magnetite.

E)

polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons.



35.

Which evidence supports the argument that life may have come from outside Earth?

A)

Reorientation studies indicate that long interplanetary trips by living organisms is possible.

B)

Macromolecules unique to life have been found in meteorites.

C)

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons have been found in meteorites.

D)

Magnetite, an iron oxide mineral made by many living organisms on Earth has been found in meteorites.

E)

All of the above



36.

The Miller–Urey experiment showed that in any environment with conditions similar to those of Earth,

A)

inorganic molecules would react to form organic molecules.

B)

RNA would self-replicate.

C)

organic molecules would form primitive cells.

D)

an oxygen atmosphere would develop.

E)

DNA would be synthesized.



37.

Which of the following was not a component of Earth's early atmosphere?

A)

Hydrogen gas

B)

Ammonia

C)

Water vapor

D)

Oxygen

E)

Methane gas



38.

Which of the following was not synthesized by the Miller–Urey experiment?

A)

Most of the amino acids used in protein synthesis

B)

Small carbon sugars

C)

Adenine and thymine

D)

Ribose

E)

Uracil



39.

The Miller–Urey experiment demonstrated that

A)

under specific conditions, the building blocks of life can be formed.

B)

life on Earth came from other bodies in the solar system.

C)

CO2, N2, H2S, and SO2 were probably present in Earth's early atmosphere.

D)

volcanic eruptions may have released CO2, N2, H2S, and SO2 into Earth's early atmosphere.

E)

ice has been found in meteorites and on Mars.



40.

Which of the following was a limitation of the Miller–Urey experiment in the 1950s?

A)

The experiment synthesized both D- and L-isomers of amino acids, but the amino acids in living things are always L-isomers.

B)

The experimenters assumed that Earth's early atmosphere contained only hydrogen gas, methane, ammonia, and water vapor; however, evidence uncovered more recently suggests that Earth's early atmosphere contained many more components.

C)

DNA is not self-catalytic.

D)

In living organisms today, peptide linkages are catalyzed by ribozymes.

E)

The hot temperatures of the experiments denatured some of the proteins that were synthesized.



41.

Which of the following is a plausible explanation for the presence of carbon dioxide in Earth's early atmosphere?

A)

Volcanic eruptions could have released carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

B)

Cyanbacteria were present on Earth 3.5 billion years ago.

C)

Retroviruses catalyzed the formation of carbon dioxide.

D)

Geysers may have produced the Earth's early environment.

E)

Chemical reactions with water resulted in the formation of carbon dioxide.



42.

The “metabolism first” theory proposes that evolution first took place

A)

in RNA, which acted as both genetic material and a catalyst.

B)

as chemical reactions that resulted in monomers.

C)

in lipids.

D)

in the trace elements.

E)

in proteins.



43.

Which of the following supports the “replicator first” theory?

A)

The role of RNA as genetic material and as a catalyst

B)

Evidence of the early emergence on Earth of chemical reactions that resulted in monomers

C)

Evidence of the nearly spontaneous formation of lipid micelles on Earth

D)

Evidence of the prebiotic chemical generation of cell-like compartments

E)

The chemical traces of life found on meteorites



44.

RNA molecules that act as catalysts are called

A)

ribozymes.

B)

glycosidic linkages.

C)

chaperonins.

D)

disulfide bridges.

E)

triglycerides.



45.

Which of the following statements about protocells is false?

A)

They can act as a system of interacting parts.

B)

Their interiors are separated from their exteriors.

C)

They are amphipathic.

D)

They are able to replicate nucleic acids.

E)

They can perform normal cellular metabolic reactions.



46.

What is the evidence supporting the claim that ancient rocks contain the fossils of cells?

A)

The imprints of chloroplasts can be seen in the rocks.

B)

Radioactive tracing of CO2 in the rocks shows similarities to modern cells.

C)

Microscopic examination of the rocks shows chains of cells that are similar to modern cyanobacteria.

D)

DNA analysis of the rocks shows similarities to modern cells.

E)

Pieces of RNA found in the rocks are similar to ribozymes.



47.

Molecules consisting only of a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous base are called _______.



48.

Purines have a _______-ring structure; pyrimidines have a _______ ring.



49.

The difference between nucleotides and nucleosides is a(n) _______.



50.

Adenine and guanine are classified as _______.



51.

According to the principle of complementary base pairing, in RNA, adenine always bonds with _______.



52.

The diversity found among DNA molecules is due to the sequence of _______.



53.

The complete set of DNA in a living organism is called its _______.



54.

The process by which DNA makes an exact copy of itself is called _______.



55.

The process by which DNA makes an RNA transcript of itself is called _______.



56.

The process by which a RNA nucleotide sequence can specify a sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide is called _______.



57.

Closely related living species should have _______ (more/less) similar base sequences than species that are more distantly related.



58.

The sequences of DNA that encode specific proteins and are transcribed into RNA are called _______.



59.

Life from inanimate matter is referred to as _______.



60.

Redi worked with _______ to disprove the idea of spontaneous generation.



61.

It took about 600 million years for life on Earth to develop. This geologic time frame is known as the _______.



62.

Astronomers believed the solar system began forming 4.6 billion years ago, when a star exploded to form bodies called _______.



63.

Evidence to support that life may have come from outside Earth includes the presence of simple carbon- containing molecules called _______ in meteorites.



64.

_______ is the theory that life's simple molecules formed in Earth's primitive environment.



65.

Some RNA molecules can act as catalysts. Catalytic RNA, or _______, can catalyze reactions on their nucleotides.



66.

A laboratory model of a prebiotic structure that resembles modern cells is called a _______.



67.

The term used to describe molecules that have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties is _______.



68.

The experiment depicted in the diagram below proves that


A)

amino acids are the building blocks of life.

B)

some forms of life can arise by spontaneous generation.

C)

oxygen is needed for life.

D)

life comes from decaying matter.

E)

life comes from preexisting life.



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