Firefighter Final True/False

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Firefighter Final

Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
____ 1. A mission statement is a written declaration by a fire agency describing the things that it intends to do to protect its citizenry or customers.
____ 2. In England, little or no attention was paid to the idea of fire insurance until the Great Fire in 1666.
____ 3. The number of experienced firefighters increased dramatically as a result of the Civil War.
____ 4. The first fire alarm was designed by San Francisco firefighter Daniel Hayes.
____ 5. Fire agencies all have an organizational structure, an inventory of facilities, apparatus, equipment, and methods for responding to emergencies.
____ 6. Fire was seldom used as a weapon of war in the colonies during the two wars fought over independence.
____ 7. After World War I, a whole generation of fire apparatus arose that consisted of hybrids of steam power and internal combustion.
____ 8. In some areas, fire and rescue services may be provided by private, for-profit companies.
____ 9. A quality training program must be followed by a comprehensive work performance evaluation program to ensure fire service leaders that their communications centers are staffed by well-trained personnel.
____ 10. Regardless of the type of fire station alerting system in use, it is critically important that accurate information pertaining to an emergency situation be transmitted from the communications center to first responders in a clear, concise, and expedient manner.
____ 11. Some call boxes simply transmit a preset identification number to the communications center without providing a means for the reporting party to communicate verbally.
____ 12. Oxygen (an oxidizer) is a powerful chemical in that it is always trying to react with other chemicals.
____ 13. The molecules in a solid material are packed closely together and bound in such a way as to give the solid shape.
____ 14. The fully developed phase is recognized as the point at which all contents within the perimeter of the fire’s boundaries are burning.
____ 15. For single-fuel fires, smoke color cannot indicate the type of material burning.
____ 16. Today’s fires are cooler and slower spreading than those of the past (thanks to a “plastic” society).
____ 17. Convection currents created by heat in the air do not occur in liquids.
____ 18. Prior to flashover, smoke gases that have lower ignition temperatures may start to ignite intermittently within the lower thermal layer.
____ 19. According to the U.S. Fire Administration (USFA), firefighter fatalities as a result of fire-related causes (burns, asphyxiation, and structural collapse) have consistently decreased.
____ 20. Currently, OSHA looks at NFPA standards as a guideline to address issues not directly covered by CFRs.
____ 21. A personal devotion to physical fitness is optional for firefighter safety.
____ 22. Defining a “small” fire or a fire that would necessitate the use of a portable fire extinguisher is a clear-cut procedure.
____ 23. Pressurized water, pressurized loaded stream, and stored pressure extinguishers operate by means of an expelling gas that propels the agent out of the container.
____ 24. The building or environment does not have to be taken into account when selecting a fire extinguisher.
____ 25. Carbon dioxide works best in enclosed or semienclosed areas as the agent can be easily blown away by the wind.
____ 26. When thinking of size, it is usually best to pick the smaller size fire extinguisher.
____ 27. Some very popular fire extinguishers of the past have now been declared obsolete and should be removed from service.
____ 28. The valves in public water systems are usually nonindicating-type gate valves and check valves.
____ 29. Firefighters should always check the hydrant outlet, flushing it if necessary, prior to connecting a supply hose.
____ 30. Dry barrel hydrants are used in areas where high temperatures could damage the hydrant.
____ 31. Testing should be conducted on fire hydrants periodically to ensure they are operable and to determine the flow rate of the hydrants.
____ 32. Minerals and organisms do not survive the water treatment process.
____ 33. A wye is a device that divides one hoseline into two or more.
____ 34. Wildland firefighting often requires firefighters to stretch hoselines a great distance from the engine while fighting the fire.
____ 35. Advancing a charged hoseline over a ladder can be done by one firefighter alone.
____ 36. If an operation requires the extension of a hoseline and a clamp is used, the firefighter operating the clamp should stay with it to ensure it is locked.
____ 37. The single-donut hose roll is used when access to either or both couplings may be needed.
____ 38. A water supply flat load starts with the male end of the hose on the right side of the bed at the front.
____ 39. A ladder can be positioned and tied off to secure dangerous areas, forming a makeshift fence in cases where a barrier tape will not suffice.
____ 40. There are two methods of raising a ladder to the vertical position.
____ 41. As with any emergency service tool, all ropes must be inspected and properly maintained to ensure they are in good shape for use during an emergency incident.
____ 42. If using a clothes washing machine to wash rope, it is very important to avoid using a front-loading machine.
____ 43. An overhand knot is generally used to secure the loose end of the working end after tying a knot.
____ 44. The standard coil used by fire departments for years will work with either natural or synthetic ropes equally well.
____ 45. The search rope system should always be anchored to an outside area whether conditions are tenuous or not.
____ 46. Using ladders for rescue is a twofold process involving rescuers on the interior as well as the exterior.
____ 47. During cleanups, the use of a dry absorbent is rare for oils, engine coolant, and diesel fuel.
____ 48. Dragging a victim may be necessary when conditions dictate that rescuers remain low or manpower is limited.
____ 49. Standard air chisels are designed to be operated at between 100 and 150 psi.
____ 50. You should not use reciprocating electric saws in hazardous or flammable atmospheres because they can cause sparks.
Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.
____ 1. The first record of a truly organized fire department began with actions taken by the ____ Empire to protect their capital.

a. Athenian b. Persian c. British d. Roman

____ 2. Early insurance companies marked the occupancies they protected with signs on sheets of metal called ____.

a. blazons b. Maltese crosses c. firemarks d. policies

____ 3. In Boston, in the early 1700s, designated people known as fire ____ were hired to make as much noise as possible upon spotting a fire.

a. crusaders b. marshals c. wardens d. chiefs

____ 4. The American ____ was developed by Andrew Gratacap.

a. fire truck b. hand pumper c. ladder d. fire helmet

____ 5. The ____ breed of dog was originally developed as a companion for horses, to calm them and chase away any small animals in their path.

a. collie b. Dalmatian c. German shepherd d. Labrador retriever

____ 6. The first fire alarm systems were created in the ____.

a. 1820s b. 1870s c. 1920s d. 1950s

____ 7. ____ is how long it takes for 50% of the information a firefighter has to become obsolete, inaccurate, or ineffective.

a. Information half-life b. Technological obsolescence c. Modernization d. Indirect attack

____ 8. During World War II, research performed by Fire Chief Lloyd Layman resulted in the development of the ____ attack method.

a. direct b. indirect c. sustained d. modern

____ 9. The first catastrophic hazardous materials event in America was the ____.

a. Chicago Fire b. ICS Fire c. Texas City Disaster d. Wingspread Disaster

____ 10. According to the United States Fire Administration, a fire department in this country responds to a fire approximately every ____ seconds.

a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

____ 11. Fire kills ____.

a. primarily when it is a result of terrorist attacks b. someone in the United States on average every 10 hours c. fewer Americans than hurricanes do d. more Americans than all natural disasters combined

____ 12. Europe was not to see any dedicated fire forces for ____ years after the collapse of the Roman Empire.

a. 100 b. 500 c. 750 d. 1,000

____ 13. Most of the early settlements in America were constructed of ____ buildings and were extremely vulnerable to fire spread.

a. straw b. brick c. wooden d. mud

____ 14. In the 1800s, the leader of a fire company was known as a ____.

a. Hessian b. foreman c. speaker d. rowdy

____ 15. The first ____ apparatus, a spring-loaded device, was designed by San Francisco firefighter Daniel Hayes.

a. hydraulic b. alarm c. engineering d. aerial

____ 16. Career firefighters banded together to form a(n) ____, the International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF).

a. social club b. research and development team c. labor union d. engineering firm

____ 17. Aerial ladders were converted from horse drawn with the advent of ____ systems.

a. electric b. manpower c. hydraulic d. pneumatic

____ 18. Technological ____ means that any given technology will only be useful for a certain period of time before it is replaced by another.

a. half-life b. obsolescence c. state of the art d. modernization

____ 19. The 1970s saw the creation of the incident command system through the activity of the ____ project.

a. NFPA b. FireScope c. Texas City d. Wingspread

____ 20. Computers can provide remote locations with access to a variety of information that is stored in a main ____ that can be accessed when needed.

a. browser b. database c. hard drive d. server

____ 21. When processing an emergency call, the most important piece of information is the ____.

a. nature of the emergency b. callback number c. caller’s location d. location of the incident

____ 22. ____ technology converts audio signals into digital data that is transmitted over the Internet.

a. VOIP b. cellular c. call box d. municipal fire alarm

____ 23. A Type ____ reporting system is defined by NFPA as “a system in which an alarm from a fire alarm box is automatically transmitted to fire stations and, if used, to outside alerting devices.”

a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 24. ____ detectors work by detecting radiation, ultraviolet, and infrared energy given off by a flame.

a. Gas b. Carbon monoxide c. Carbon dioxide d. Flame

____ 25. In departments where fire stations are staffed twenty-four hours a day, some type of ____ is usually employed.

a. home alerting device b. personal pager c. fire station alerting system d. GPS

____ 26. Departments that utilize CAD systems can enhance this method by installing ____ printers in each fire station.

a. laser b. inkjet c. mobile data d. “tear and run”

____ 27. When using any trunked two-way radio, it is important to depress and hold the “push to talk” button at least two seconds before talking to avoid ____ the first part of the message.

a. clipping b. garbling c. duplication d. erasing

____ 28. Traditionally, the term ____ has signified that a member is in trouble and in need of assistance.

a. 10-4 b. dispatch c. mayday d. emergency traffic

____ 29. A(n) ____ is the first person to speak to the caller in need of emergency services.

a. telecommunicator b. EMT c. division chief d. first responder

____ 30. In the case of emergency medical calls, much more information may be requested from the caller in accordance with emergency medical ____ (EMD) protocols.

a. delivery b. documentation c. dispatch d. damage

____ 31. There are ____ types of public alarm systems as defined by the NFPA.

a. two b. three c. four d. six

____ 32. An alarm system that utilizes a municipal fire alarm box to transmit a fire alarm from a protected property to a fire communications center is called a(n) ____ signaling system.

a. local protective b. auxiliary protective c. remote station protective d. proprietary protective

____ 33. Residential carbon monoxide detectors are oftentimes confused as ____ by citizens calling in alarms.

a. auxiliary alarms b. flame detectors c. call boxes d. smoke detectors

____ 34. Some departments may use ____ circuits to communicate with their communications center.

a. mobile b. ringdown c. pullbox d. base

____ 35. Some departments employ ____ (MDTs) and mobile data computers in their dispatch and deployment process.

a. medical data terminals b. medical data transits c. mobile data transits d. mobile data terminals

____ 36. ____ radio systems provide perhaps the best coverage and also offer direct benefits associated with the most efficient use of radio resources.

a. Simplex b. Multisite trunked c. Duplex d. GPS

____ 37. The golden rule of radio communication is to ____.

a. be polite b. use jargon whenever possible c. be comprehensive d. be brief but be concise

____ 38. Major events involving fire and EMS sometimes call for the use of ____ vehicles (MSVs).

a. mobile sanitation b. medical sanitation c. mobile support d. medical support

____ 39. A National Fire Incident Reporting System was put into place by the U.S. Fire Administration in ____ to be used as a tool for assessing the fire problem in the United States.

a. 1945 b. 1959 c. 1976 d. 2001

____ 40. ____ is a chemical reaction that includes the self-sustaining rapid oxidation of a fuel accompanied by the release of heat and light.

a. Combustion b. Reduction c. Pyrolysis d. Exothermic flow

____ 41. Water is made of the elements hydrogen and ____.

a. helium b. oxygen c. carbon d. calcium

____ 42. Any chemical reaction that results in a heat release is known as a(n) ____ reaction.

a. oxidative b. reductive c. exothermic d. endothermic

____ 43. ____ heat is created from the friction of two materials rubbing against each other.

a. Mechanical b. Electrical c. Chemical d. Nuclear

____ 44. ____ electricity occurs when dissimilar materials are rubbed, scraped, or suddenly joined or separated.

a. Inductive b. Microwave c. Nuclear d. Static

____ 45. Matter can be found in one of three physical states: solid, ____, or gas.

a. liquid b. plasma c. crystal d. condensate

____ 46. The amount of heat a solid material can absorb before it begins to break down is directly proportional to its ____.

a. density b. surface-to-mass ratio c. volume d. mass

____ 47. What is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will off-gas an ignitable mixture that will ignite and continue to burn, given an outside spark or flame?

a. flash point b. fire point c. ignition temperature d. combustion temperature

____ 48. Which class of fire is made up of ordinary combustibles such as paper, wood, cloth, rubber, and other organic solids, including petrochemical solids (plastics)?

a. A b. B c. C d. K

____ 49. ____ is the transfer of heat through a solid object.

a. Radiation b. Induction c. Conduction d. Convection

____ 50. How many methods of heat transfer are usually present during fires?

a. one b. two c. three d. four

____ 51. The most dangerous product of combustion is ____.

a. smoke b. heat c. light d. the thermal plume

____ 52. ____ is the sudden and explosive ignition of pressurized, superheated, and oxygen-deprived gases (within a closed space) caused by the reintroduction of oxygen.

a. Backdraft b. Rapid fire spread c. Pyrolysis d. Flashover

____ 53. ____ heating takes place when electromagnetic waves stimulate the molecules of a given material.

a. Infrared b. Induction c. Static d. Oxidation

____ 54. The weight of a gas compared to air is known as its ____ density.

a. vapor b. absolute c. atmospheric d. flash

____ 55. Density is the ____ of a substance under specified conditions of pressure and temperature.

a. volume per unit mass b. mass per unit volume c. mass d. volume

____ 56. When combustion occurs, light is produced. These lightwaves range from ____ to infrared.

a. X-rays b. visible light c. ultraviolet d. cosmic rays

____ 57. During the ____ phase of a fire, an obvious thermal plume develops.

a. ignition b. growth c. decay d. fully developed

____ 58. ____ is defined as the product of incomplete combustion or decomposition heating and includes an aggregate of solids, liquids, and gases.

a. The flame front b. Smoke c. The thermal plume d. Pyrolysis

____ 59. A ____ event is one where the accumulated smoke within a building ignites and suddenly spreads the fire.

a. flashover b. backdraft c. rapid fire spread d. pyrolytic

____ 60. Firefighter duty deaths hover around ____ duty-related deaths each year in the United States.

a. 10 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200

____ 61. The NFPA 1500 Standard addresses the ____.

a. Comprehensive Occupational Medical Program for F.D.s b. F.D. Occupational Safety and Health Program c. Rehabilitation Process for Members During Emergency Operations and Training Exercises d. F.D. Infection Control Program

____ 62. ____ Alerts are developed to address disturbing trends and offer recommendations to help reduce the reoccurrence of similar events.


____ 63. Each and every skill, knowledge item, or behavior that is learned in basic academy should be drilled, tested, or confirmed every ____.

a. week b. month c. year d. two years

____ 64. ____ continue(s) to lead the list of causes of firefighter duty deaths and is a significant contributor in injuries.

a. Burns b. Collisions c. Overexertion/stress d. Smoke inhalation

____ 65. Some departments have learned from others’ experiences—this is known as having a ____ experience.

a. collaborative b. duty-related c. referential d. vicarious

____ 66. It is common to have safety SOPs that address PPE (____).

a. personal power engineering b. public and private enterprises c. personal protective equipment d. personal power-source equipment

____ 67. ____ occurs when a team operates outside the action plan or when individuals work alone.

a. Freelancing b. Feedback c. Team leadership d. Creativity

____ 68. The firefighter safety system only works if ____.

a. the department is run by strong leaders b. the department chief appoints a deputy in charge of health c. everyone takes responsibility for their own safety d. everyone acts as a freelancer

____ 69. ____ are in writing and they take on many forms: standard operating procedures (SOPs), standard operating guidelines (SOGs), departmental directives, temporary memorandums, and the like.

a. Manuals b. Guidelines c. Safety triads d. Formal processes

____ 70. The FDNY line leadership felt that many of the deaths could have been avoided had firefighters and fire officers practiced ____.

a. the basics b. SOPs c. advanced guidelines d. cardio workouts

____ 71. It is common to have safety SOPs that address SCBA (____).

a. self-contained breathing apparatus b. standard contact breathing apparatus c. self-contained bracing apparatus d. standard containment and breathing apparatus

____ 72. Reporting to duty or an incident with a physical limitation will ____.

a. not have an impact b. make the team look good c. increase everyone’s danger d. inspire everyone

____ 73. Using a(n) ____ helps achieve a standard approach to incidents.

a. SOP b. engagement checklist c. action plan d. equipment checklist

____ 74. Class ____ fires involve ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, plastics, and rubber.

a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 75. Class ____ fires involve flammable and combustible liquids, gases, and greases.

a. A b. B c. C d. D

____ 76. Class ____ fires involve energized electrical equipment.

a. A b. B c. C d. K

____ 77. Class ____ fires involve combustible metals and alloys such as magnesium, sodium, lithium, and potassium.

a. A b. B c. D d. K

____ 78. How many universal Class D extinguishing agents exist?

a. none b. one c. two d. four

____ 79. Class D extinguishing agents are called ____.

a. wet chemicals b. wet powders c. dry chemicals d. dry powders

____ 80. ____ agents are the agents used to replace halon or halogenated hydrocarbon extinguishers.

a. Clean b. Dry c. Wet d. Chemical

____ 81. Carbon dioxide extinguishers are used for Class ____ fires.

a. B and C b. B and K c. D and K d. A and D

____ 82. The testing of Class C extinguishers and agents tests only the ____ of the agent and the nozzle or hose and nozzle combination.

a. volume b. current capacity c. conductivity d. density

____ 83. The practical effective range of a pressurized water or foam extinguisher is about ____ feet.

a. 5 b. 20 c. 30 d. 50

____ 84. Stored-pressure water extinguishers are designed to be carried in a(n) ____ position when approaching a fire.

a. downward b. horizontal c. tilted d. upright

____ 85. The inspection of fire extinguishers by firefighters is usually a(n) ____ inspection.

a. automatic b. auditory c. visual d. electronic

____ 86. To combat the freezing problems inherent in water, a(n) ____ can be added as an antifreeze agent.

a. acid b. alkali salt c. hydrocarbon d. transition metal salt

____ 87. Wet chemical agents are water-based solutions of ____ carbonate-based chemical, ____ acetate-based chemical, ____ citrate-based chemical, or a combination of those chemicals.

a. magnesium b. lithium c. sodium d. potassium

____ 88. Newer fire extinguishers are labeled with ____,

a. colored geometrical shapes b. a picture label system c. a letter system d. numbers and shapes

____ 89. Pressurized water, pressurized loaded stream, and stored pressure extinguishers operate by means of a(n) ____ that propels the agent out of the container.

a. expelling gas b. explosive c. expelling liquid d. thermal vaporizer

____ 90. ____ extinguishers have a gauge to measure the pressure of the gas.

a. All b. No c. Very few d. Most

____ 91. Cartridge-operated extinguishers are similar to ____ extinguishers.

a. pump type b. stored pressure c. pressurized loaded stream d. pressurized water

____ 92. Which of the following is present in a stored pressure AFFF or FFFP extinguisher with air-aspirating nozzle?

a. anti-overfill tube b. dry chemical c. locking ring pin d. fixed nozzle

____ 93. Extinguishers are meant to combat ____ fires in the ____ stage.

a. large, fully developed b. small, growth c. large, growth d. small, fully developed

____ 94. Normally, portable water extinguishers contain ____ gallons of water.

a. 1 b. 1.5 c. 2 d. 2.5

____ 95. Extinguishers in buildings should be inspected every ____ days, or must be electronically checked.

a. 10 b. 15 c. 30 d. 90

____ 96. The pockets of groundwater below the Earth’s surface are known as ____.

a. natural tankers b. aquifers c. tidal basins d. water tables

____ 97. The level of the water under the Earth’s surface is the ____.

a. water table b. aquifer level c. tidal change d. sea level

____ 98. The term water ____ is used to describe mobile water supply apparatus.

a. tankard b. tide c. tender d. table

____ 99. A ____ is also known as the “plug.”

a. primary feeder b. secondary feeder c. gravity-assisted water supply system d. fire hydrant

____ 100. Anytime a valve is operated, it should be done slowly to prevent a sudden surge of pressure referred to as a ____.

a. water hammer b. draft c. dry barrel d. geyser

____ 101. ____ valves or butterfly valves are opened and closed to control water flow.

a. Check b. Backflow c. Gate d. Nonindicator

____ 102. ____ valves are installed to control water flow in one direction, typically when different systems are interconnected.

a. Gate b. Butterfly c. Backflow d. Check

____ 103. Backflow preventers are ____ valves or a pair of ____ valves that prevent a backflow of water from one system into another.

a. gate b. butterfly c. check d. backflow

____ 104. Rural water supply or mobile apparatus water supply operations can occur ____.

a. only in rural areas b. only in suburban areas c. only on farmland d. anywhere

____ 105. Atmospheric pressure reduces 0.5 psi per ____ feet of elevation.

a. 100 b. 1,000 c. 5,000 d. 10,000

____ 106. Of the many natural and man-made factors affecting water sources, which of the following is the most significant?

a. pollution b. the weather c. farm runoff d. earthquakes

____ 107. Small groundwater systems require a ____ with a pumping station that can also treat and store the water.

a. well b. cistern c. dry hydrant d. tender

____ 108. Water mains are divided into feeders and ____.

a. secondaries b. pumps c. distribution lines d. primaries

____ 109. The two major hydrant types are ____ barrel hydrants.

a. red and yellow b. wet and dry c. large and small d. dense and light

____ 110. Good water distribution systems are interconnected into ____ that allow multidirectional supply.

a. loops and grids b. webs c. concentric circles d. platforms

____ 111. Dry barrel hydrants use a ____ at the base of the hydrant to control water flow to all outlets.

a. valve b. stem c. nut d. water main

____ 112. A dry hydrant is not really a fire hydrant but a connection point for ____ a ____ water source.

a. discharging to, dynamic b. discharging to, static c. drafting from, dynamic d. drafting from, static

____ 113. Dry hydrants are used primarily in ____ areas.

a. urban b. suburban c. polluted d. rural

____ 114. Backflow preventers are mostly required where a building water or fire protection system connects with ____.

a. factory runoff b. a high-pressure system c. the public water system d. a lake

____ 115. Private water valves are of the indicating type, for example, a ____ indicator valve (PIV).

a. post b. private c. pressure d. public

____ 116. A mobile water apparatus operation is a(n) ____ operation that involves mobile water supply apparatus moving large quantities of water between a dump site and a fill site.

a. environmental b. jet c. shuttle d. directional

____ 117. ____ rates can be calculated by adding the time to fill a mobile apparatus, turn the unit around and return to the dump site, drop the water, and turn around and return to the fill site divided by the quantity of water carried.

a. Fire flow b. Jet siphon c. Shuttle flow d. Mobile flow

____ 118. ____ hose (also known as soft sleeve) is large-diameter woven hose used to connect a pumper to a hydrant.

a. Soft suction b. Attack c. Supply d. Occupant use

____ 119. National Standard hose threads and other types have blunt end threads called a ____ cut.

a. Storz b. Higbee c. hydrant d. water hammer

____ 120. The ____ hose roll is the easiest to work with.

a. single donut b. straight c. double donut d. twin donut

____ 121. The minuteman load is a preconnected load using a narrower section of the hose bed. This narrower section is called a(n) ____ load.

a. slot b. ear c. hydrant d. adapter

____ 122. Advancing hoselines using a standpipe system involves ____ different hoseline evolutions.

a. one b. two c. three d. four

____ 123. The ____ is a permanently mounted master stream device on an engine that has either prepiped water connection or needs a short section of hose to connect it to the pump.

a. deluge set b. monitor pipe c. ladder pipe d. wagon pipe

____ 124. A ____ is a permanently attached master stream device with a prepiped waterway on an aerial device such as an aerial ladder or platform.

a. monitor pipe b. water pipe c. deluge set d. ladder pipe

____ 125. The testing of hose begins with a(n) ____ inspection of the hose coupling.

a. visual b. ultrasound c. chemical d. burst

____ 126. Hose testing is a destructive process that identifies weak hose by causing it to ____.

a. melt b. burst c. dissolve d. burn

____ 127. If a hard sleeve is used under positive pressure, it must pass a service test of ____ psi.

a. 110 b. 165 c. 210 d. 255

____ 128. Hard suction hose has a plastic or wire ____ to provide additional support and prevent collapse under a vacuum when drafting.

a. helix b. liner c. jacket d. pylon

____ 129. Uncoupling hose is usually done ____ which it was connected.

a. in the same manner in b. in an unrelated manner to c. with different wrenches than d. in the opposite manner in

____ 130. The simple hose drag technique can move ____ hoselines.

a. one or two b. three c. four d. five

____ 131. The accordion load is ideal for making up ____ loads.

a. shoulder b. dutchman c. coupling d. loop

____ 132. What is the first step in performing the triple-layer load?

a. Connect all the hose to the discharge. b. Make a fold and double the hose on itself. c. Load the hose in the slot in a layer. d. Grab the layer with the nozzle and place it on the shoulder.

____ 133. In wildland firefighting, placing two bundles together allows each firefighter to carry ____ feet of 1-inch (25-mm) or 1.5-inch (38-mm) hose.

a. 100 b. 200 c. 250 d. 300

____ 134. When advancing hoselines, the ____ will advance the first shoulder load with the nozzle.

a. officer b. engine driver c. nozzle person d. incident commander

____ 135. If the line is to be used from a ladder, it should be secured by rope hose tools every ____ feet and at the base of the ladder.

a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30

____ 136. Care should be taken while removing kinks in large-diameter hose (LDH). For safety reasons, the firefighter should always try to “____” the kink out of LDH.

a. punch b. lift c. dissolve d. kick

____ 137. The ____ lay is used where the fire and the water source are in two different directions, such as on two different streets.

a. forward b. split c. reverse d. modified

____ 138. The bottom-most part of a ladder is known as the ____.

a. heel b. bed section c. beam d. spur

____ 139. ____ are limiters built into the bed section to prevent the extension fly sections from being overextended.

a. Rungs b. Stops c. Heels d. Dogs

____ 140. The folding ladder is also known as a(n) ____ ladder.

a. A-frame b. halyard c. suitcase d. garage

____ 141. The most obvious use of a ladder is for ____.

a. stability b. access c. ventilation d. rescue

____ 142. When bridging, a(n) ____ ladder is the safest to use.

a. wall b. straight c. A-frame d. bedded extension

____ 143. ____ ladders are electrical conductors independent of their construction material.

a. Some b. All c. No d. Only A-frame

____ 144. The three-person ____ carry is a particularly useful technique when great disparity exists in the height of the firefighters.

a. oblique b. flat c. suitcase d. shoulder

____ 145. There are two methods of raising a ladder to the vertical position: rung raises and ____ raises.

a. beam b. heel c. bed d. spur

____ 146. ____ is the most difficult action for the uninitiated.

a. Performing the leg lock b. Using a ladder belt c. Getting on and off a ladder d. Carrying tools on a ladder

____ 147. The bed ladder is attached to a turntable, a ____-degree rotatable platform that is attached to the framework of the apparatus.

a. 90 b. 180 c. 270 d. 360

____ 148. The articulating boom (sometimes known as a ____ ladder) truck was among the first designs for elevated platform use in the fire service.

a. snorkel b. tower c. turntable d. fly

____ 149. ____ are the apparatus that carry ladders and other devices, tools, and personnel to upper levels.

a. Ladder joists b. Ladder companies c. Fly sections d. Portable apparatuses

____ 150. Also referred to as a(n) ____ ladder, the straight ladder is a fixed length ladder.

a. wall b. extension c. roof d. elongated

____ 151. When nested, the A-frame ladder is easily stored and acts as a mini-____ ladder.

a. wall b. folding c. extension d. straight

____ 152. If the ladder tip is on the fire escape itself, the tip should be ____ the upper rail.

a. level with or below b. level with or above c. significantly above d. to the side of

____ 153. A set of ladders tied off at the tip and at the base into an A-frame configuration can be used as an emergency hoist point if a pulley and rope are attached to the ____ of the ladder triangle.

a. base b. side c. apex d. middle rung

____ 154. When parking the ladder apparatus, the ladder apparatus driver should place the apparatus ____ the fire building.

a. parallel to b. perpendicular to c. immediately next to d. at an angle to

____ 155. Ladder weight loads are tested while the ladder is in a horizontal position and resting on one beam, supported only at the tip and the butt, and again while the ladder is in the climbing position of ____ degrees.

a. 30 b. 60 c. 75 d. 90

____ 156. The suitcase carry is used primarily as a(n) ____ carry maneuver.

a. long b. short c. elevated d. A-frame

____ 157. The second alternate leg lock is known as the ____ leg lock and works well for taller firefighters performing quick maneuvers.

a. foreshortened b. towering c. suitcase d. hyper-extended

____ 158. When climbing into a window, it is always better to ____ the windowsill so that if there is structural instability, weight can be withdrawn.

a. step down onto b. step up onto c. step through d. step around

____ 159. The bed ladder, including the nested fly sections, is raised out of the bed of the apparatus through the use of ____ pistons.

a. hydraulic b. pneumatic c. turntable d. floating

____ 160. ____ ropes are formed by weaving small bundles (not twisted) of fibers together, uniformly and systematically.

a. Kernmantle b. Laid c. Utility d. Braided

____ 161. NFPA 1983 categorizes life safety ropes as light-use (or one-person) or general-use (or two-person) ropes and sets minimum ____ requirements for each.

a. length b. diameter c. tensile strength d. density

____ 162. A ____ is a doubled section of rope, usually made along the standing part. It forms a U-turn in the rope that does not cross itself.

a. running end b. bight c. round turn d. working part

____ 163. The ____ is used to attach a rope to an object, such as a pole, tree, or fence post, or to a tool, such as a pike pole or hoseline.

a. clove hitch b. half hitch c. overhand knot d. sheet bend

____ 164. Although it was the mainstay of fire service knots for years, the advent of synthetic fiber ropes has greatly reduced the utilization of the ____ knot.

a. becket b. bowline c. half hitch d. clove hitch

____ 165. The first step in tying a water knot is to tie a simple ____ knot.

a. becket b. half hitch c. bowline d. overhand

____ 166. If a life safety rope is found to be damaged or suspect it should be ____.

a. immediately removed from service b. immediately repaired c. jury-rigged d. used until the next inspection

____ 167. Ropes should be inspected ____ by running them through the hands.

a. visually b. chemically c. tensilely d. tactilely

____ 168. Inspecting the inside of a braided rope ____.

a. can be done tactilely b. should be done annually c. is impossible d. is very easy

____ 169. The standard coiling method of storage used by fire departments for years ____.

a. will work with either natural or synthetic ropes equally well b. will work better for natural ropes c. will work better for synthetic ropes d. is obsolete

____ 170. Pike poles should be hoisted ____.

a. horizontally b. point up c. point down d. at a 45-degree angle

____ 171. When hoisting a hoseline, the first knot utilized is a ____.

a. clove hitch b. half hitch c. bowline d. figure eight

____ 172. The use of natural material ropes by the vast majority of departments continued until the ____.

a. 1960s b. 1970s c. 1980s d. 1990s

____ 173. The primary synthetic materials utilized in the manufacture of ropes are nylon, polypropylene, polyethylene, and ____.

a. agave b. polyester c. manila d. sisal

____ 174. The ____ method is the most common type of construction for natural fiber ropes.

a. laid b. braided c. braid-on-braid d. kerned

____ 175. In a kernmantle rope, the ____ generally carries the vast majority of the load, accounting for approximately 75 percent of the strength of the rope.

a. kern b. mantle c. braid d. sheath

____ 176. Rope used for utility purposes has no governing standards; therefore, it is the responsibility of the ____ to determine its type and construction.


____ 177. The ____ is the end of the rope utilized to tie the knot.

a. running end b. hitched end c. working end d. standing part

____ 178. A ____ is formed by continuing the loop on around until the sections of the standing part on either side are parallel to one another.

a. loop b. round turn c. bight d. running end

____ 179. A half hitch is almost always utilized in conjunction with some other knot and is used to maintain the proper ____ of the object being hoisted.

a. orientation b. size c. elevation d. weight

____ 180. Also known as the ____ bend and double ____ bend, the becket bend and the double becket bend are very useful knots for tying ropes together.

a. clove b. hitch c. sheet d. half

____ 181. The bowline is an inherently ____ knot, which is beneficial when it needs to be untied.

a. loose b. tight c. hitched d. doubled

____ 182. Which of the following procedures should be used to clean synthetic material rope?

a. Use strong detergent. b. Use bleach. c. Use hot water. d. Use tap/cold water.

____ 183. When coiling a rope, measure off an amount of rope equal to approximately ____ times the distance between the standards to be used in tying the finished coil.

a. two b. three c. four d. five

____ 184. A ____ figure eight on a bight with a ____ hitch up the handle is the easiest and quickest way to hoist an ax.

a. small, half b. small, clove c. large, half d. large, clove

____ 185. When firefighters are involved in a rescue operation, one of the biggest dangers they face is overfocusing on a particular problem without proper regard for consequences. This is called ____.

a. teamwork b. initial assessment c. risk/benefit analysis d. tunnel vision

____ 186. During an interior search, firefighters should stay in contact with a ____.

a. truss b. wall c. door d. roof

____ 187. ____ emitters are inanimate objects whose temperatures will vary depending on the environment and time limit that they are exposed.

a. Direct source b. Indirect source c. Passive d. Active

____ 188. The extremity carry (sometimes referred to as the cross-arm carry) can be utilized on both conscious and unconscious patients and requires ____ rescuer(s).

a. one b. two c. three d. five

____ 189. ____ (also known as long spine boards) are designed to provide the maximum in spinal immobilization.

a. Cradles b. Blanketboards c. Backboards d. Stretchers

____ 190. The glass used in vehicle windshields is laminated safety glass and is actually several layers of glass and ____ sandwiched together.

a. metal b. gel c. plastic d. air

____ 191. The disentanglement method that involves the cutting off of components is ____.

a. disassembly b. severance c. distortion d. displacement

____ 192. What is the first stage in structural collapse rescue?

a. void search b. general debris removal c. selected debris removal d. reconnaissance and rescue of surface victims

____ 193. The first fire departments to use ____ (TICs) took place in the late 1980s.

a. transient imaging cameras b. transient intensity cameras c. thermal imaging cameras d. thermal intensity cameras

____ 194. To bring a victim down a ground ladder will require a minimum of at least ____ members.

a. one to two b. two to three c. three to five d. four to six

____ 195. A good working definition of ____ is “to set free, release or disentangle a patient from an entrapment.”

a. cradle carry b. first aid c. extrication d. rescue

____ 196. The first hour after the onset of a severe injury is the most critical for the accident victim and is referred to as the ____ Hour.

a. Silver b. Golden c. Critical d. Magic

____ 197. What is the first procedure to be performed at an extrication incident?

a. disentanglement b. patient removal c. scene assessment d. establishment of work area

____ 198. High-pressure air bags operate at a maximum inflation pressure of approximately ____ psi.

a. 50 b. 75 c. 130 d. 200

____ 199. An apparatus serving as a traffic barrier should park ____ to help increase the work area and make the apparatus appear larger to approaching traffic.

a. with a slight diagonal angle b. parallel to the road c. at a right angle to traffic d. on the shoulder

____ 200. A(n) ____ collapse occurs when both sides of the supporting walls or the floor anchoring system fail.

a. A-type b. pancake c. lean-to d. V-type

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