Ap chapters 2 & 3 Quiz Multiple Choice



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AP Chapters 2 & 3 Quiz
Multiple Choice

Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. In the Declaration of Independence, the list of complaints against George III and his ministers spoke of

a.

social conditions in the colonies.

b.

economic conditions in the colonies.

c.

specific violations of political liberties.

d.

the lack of equality among the colonists.

e.

All of the above

2. The New Jersey Plan was a reaction by some states primarily to the fear that



a.

the legislative veto power called for by the Virginia Plan would seriously undermine individual states’ rights.

b.

the weak central government devised by the Virginia Plan would grant too much power to rural states.

c.

the strong central government devised by the Virginia Plan would grant too much power to small states.

d.

the Virginia Plan gave too much power to populous states.

e.

Hamilton’s suggestions about the executive branch would be accepted by the convention.

3. The text suggests the Federalists might more accurately have been called the



a.

nationalists.

b.

states’ righters.

c.

monarchists.

d.

loyalists.

e.

anarchists.

4. The text suggests that the Anti-Federalists



a.

had legitimate concerns.

b.

had uncanny instincts for what the future might bring.

c.

had no agreed-on alternative to the Constitution.

d.

were generally opposed to a Bill of Rights.

e.

All of the above

5. It quickly became clear that the Constitution would not be ratified without at least the promise of



a.

the abolition of slavery.

b.

female suffrage.

c.

an elaborate federal court system.

d.

a bill of rights.

e.

a two-party system.

6. The Bill of Rights to the U.S. Constitution was intended to limit the power of



a.

state governments over citizens.

b.

citizens to amend the U.S. Constitution.

c.

the federal government.

d.

legislatures to amend the U.S. Constitution.

e.

All of the above

7. The First Amendment addressed the issue of



a.

double jeopardy.

b.

trial by jury.

c.

cruel and unusual punishment.

d.

unreasonable searches and seizure.

e.

freedom of speech.

8. Three-fifths of the slaves were counted for purposes of



a.

electing state legislatures.

b.

apportioning delegates to presidential conventions.

c.

allotting seats in the House of Representatives.

d.

assigning delegates to state conventions.

e.

allotting seats in the Senate.

9. The Great Compromise is also known as the __________ Compromise.



a.

Large-State

b.

Connecticut

c.

Amending

d.

New Jersey

e.

Electoral

10. After reviewing Beard’s economic interpretation of the U.S. Constitution, historians found



a.

substantial support for it.

b.

very little support for it.

c.

more support for it regarding the Constitutional Convention than the ratifying conventions.

d.

more support for it regarding the ratifying conventions than the Constitutional Convention.

e.

more support for it, controlling for the presence of slave owners.

11. Compared with Federalists, Anti-Federalists tended to favor a



a.

strong national government as a protection against political privilege.

b.

weak, decentralized government as a protection against institutional imbalance.

c.

weak, decentralized government as a protection of liberty.

d.

strong national government as a protection of political privilege.

e.

strong national government for purposes of taxation.

12. In Federalist 10, _________ warned against a “zeal for different opinions concerning religion.”



a.

Washington

b.

Hamilton

c.

Jefferson

d.

Madison

e.

Luther

13. A major argument in favor of reducing the separation of powers called for in the U.S. Constitution is that it would



a.

allow prompt, decisive leadership in times of crisis.

b.

weaken the presidency and give greater protection against executive dictatorship.

c.

disperse credit or blame equally among the three branches of government.

d.

apportion responsibility for implementing government programs among members of Congress.

e.

create a truly independent judiciary.

14. Most amendments to the U.S. Constitution have been ratified by the vote of



a.

ratifying conventions in three-fourths of the states.

b.

one-half of the state legislatures.

c.

two-thirds of the members of both houses of Congress.

d.

two-thirds of the representatives to a national convention.

e.

three-fourths of the state legislatures.

15. The line-item veto would allow a president to



a.

send a bill back to Congress for reconsideration.

b.

veto part of a bill while approving the rest.

c.

suspend the enactment of a bill temporarily.

d.

veto a bill if Congress were not in session.

e.

veto a bill within six hours of passage by Congress.

16. All of the following were true of the government under the Articles of Confederation except that



a.

larger states had more votes in the national legislature.

b.

there was no national judicial branch.

c.

the national government could not levy taxes.

d.

the national government could not regulate commerce.

e.

amendment required the support of all thirteen states.

17. For the Founders, federalism was a device to



a.

protect liberty.

b.

provide efficient local administration.

c.

encourage citizen participation.

d.

guarantee equality.

e.

protect against foreign invasion.

18. Madison’s description of federalism in Federalist No. 46 suggests there should be little concern over conflicts between the federal and state governments because



a.

the federal government would clearly be the winner in such conflicts.

b.

the state government would clearly be the winner in such conflicts.

c.

such conflicts would occur only on minor issues of importance.

d.

they are different agents with different powers.

e.

the judicial branch would settle such disputes.

19. In Federalist No. 45, Madison describes the powers of state governments as



a.

broad but limited.

b.

numerous and indefinite.

c.

narrow but critical.

d.

limited and subject to review.

e.

without substance.

20. An important outcome of Marshall’s ruling in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) was to



a.

place limits on the constitutional powers granted to Congress by refusing McCulloch’s appeal.

b.

give greater power to the states in taxing agents of the federal government, including banks.

c.

protect newspaper editors who publish stories critical of the federal government.

d.

restrict the power of the Court in cases involving conflicts between states and the federal government.

e.

confirm the supremacy of the federal government in the exercise of the constitutional powers granted to Congress.

21. The doctrine of nullification refers to



a.

the power of Congress to veto state laws that violate the U.S. Constitution.

b.

the claimed authority of the states to declare a federal law void for violating the U.S. Constitution.

c.

the power of the president to veto state laws for violating the U.S. Constitution.

d.

the authority of the president to dissolve Congress and to call for new elections.

e.

the power of the federal government to invalidate state laws on matters of commerce.

22. The doctrine of dual federalism grew out of a protracted debate on the subject of



a.

commerce.

b.

banking.

c.

manufacturing.

d.

welfare.

e.

licensing of commercial fishermen.

23. In U.S. v. Lopez (1995), the Supreme Court ruled that Congress overstepped its power to regulate commerce by prohibiting ________ in a school zone.



a.

guns

b.

adult bookstores

c.

cigarette sales

d.

alcohol sales

e.

dog races

24. In U.S. v. Morrison, the Supreme Court ruled that violence against women



a.

was not an appropriate focus of punitive damages.

b.

did not substantially affect interstate commerce.

c.

could not be made the responsibility of distant relatives.

d.

was nonjusticiable.

e.

could not be regulated by law.

25. Under their police powers, states can enact and enforce all of the following except



a.

criminal codes.

b.

laws requiring children to attend school.

c.

restrictions on the availability of pornographic materials.

d.

standards for DUI convictions.

e.

the regulation of interstate commerce.

26. Which of the following allows national governments the right to alter or even abolish local government?



a.

A constitutional government

b.

Federalism

c.

A unitary system

d.

Socialism

e.

A confederation

27. Perhaps the most obvious effect of federalism in the United States has been to



a.

centralize the government.

b.

prevent states from blocking national interests.

c.

increase conflict among elites.

d.

raise the cost of organized political activity.

e.

mobilize political activity.

28. Which is a procedure that enables voters to reject a measure adopted by the legislature?



a.

Initiative

b.

Referendum

c.

Recall

d.

Logrolling

e.

Rollback

29. This procedure, which is in effect in about one-third of the states, permits voters to remove an elected official from office.



a.

Initiative

b.

Referendum

c.

Recall

d.

Logrolling

e.

Rollback

30. A categorical grant is a transfer of federal funds designed for



a.

the private sector.

b.

discretionary use by a state.

c.

the accomplishment of broad goals.

d.

programs with matching grants.

e.

specific purposes.

31. Most federal mandates concern



a.

intrastate commerce.

b.

the Internet.

c.

civil rights.

d.

the environment.

e.

C and D

32. Judges have ordered Massachusetts to change the way it hires firefighters, even though the state does not receive aid from the federal government for fire fighting. Such an order is referred to as a



a.

condition of aid.

b.

quid pro quo order.

c.

mandate.

d.

pro bono requirement.

e.

per curiam order.

33. The Republican effort to pass on to the states many federal functions is known as



a.

third-order devolution.

b.

marble-cake federalism.

c.

devolution.

d.

neo-institutionalism.

e.

fragmented federalism.

34. According to Madison, the branch of government to be most feared because of its inherent power is:



a.

the executive.

b.

the judiciary.

c.

the legislature.

d.

the bureaucracy.

e.

the presidential offices.

35. Madison argues that the separation of powers can only be maintained if:



a.

each branch of government is kept entirely separate from coordinate branches.

b.

each branch has no power.

c.

a strong presidency exists.

d.

an alert citizenry checks government.

e.

the powers of the three branches of the government overlap.

36. A central premise of James Madison in numbers 47, 48, and 51 of The Federalist is that:



a.

weak government is the best government.

b.

the combination of legislative, executive, and judicial power is the very definition of tyranny.

c.

men are not angels and therefore those who exercise political power must be limited.

d.

b and c

e.

a and b

37. From its creation, the Constitution was perceived as the document that sought to:



a.

make the president dominant over Congress.

b.

reserve extensive powers to the states.

c.

strike a delicate balance between governmental power and individual liberty.

d.

a and b

e.

all of the above

38. Which of the following statements is incorrect?



a.

There is genuine controversy over how the Constitution should be read.

b.

The framers’ intent is clear with regard to most constitutional provisions.

c.

The Constitution has been interpreted in various ways over the years.

d.

The Constitution is a framework, not a blueprint.

e.

The Constitution is our fundamental body of laws.

AP Chapters 2 & 3 Quiz

Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. C
2. D
3. A
4. E
5. D
6. C
7. E
8. C
9. B
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. E
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. D
19. B
20. E
21. B
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. E
26. C
27. E
28. B
29. C
30. E
31. E
32. C
33. C
34. C
35. E
36. D
37. C
38. B


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